Released CompTIA N10-008 Updated Questions PDF
N10-008 Dumps and Practice Test (1075 Exam Questions)
CompTIA N10-008 certification exam is ideal for IT professionals who work with network technologies, including network administrators, network engineers, system engineers, and network technicians. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification exam is also suitable for individuals who are looking to enter the networking industry or to enhance their skills and knowledge in this field. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification exam is vendor-neutral, which means it is not tied to any specific vendor or technology, making it a valuable credential for professionals who work with different types of networks.
NEW QUESTION # 156
A technician is monitoring a network interface and notices the device is dropping packets. The cable and interfaces, however, are in working order.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
- A. MIB mismatch
- B. Encapsulation errors
- C. OID duplication
- D. CPU usage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Overworking CPU or max Ram, general the encapsulation failed error message indicates that the router has a layer 3 packet to forward and is lacking some element of the layer 2 header that it needs to be able to forward the packet toward the next hop.
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following types of planes propagates routing information in an SDWAN solution?
- A. Data plane
- B. Management plane
- C. Control plane
- D. Orchestration plane
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 158
A company's publicly accessible servers are connected to a switch between the company's ISP-connected router and the firewall in front of the company network. The firewall is stateful, and the router is running an ACL. Which of the following best describes the area between the router and the firewall?
- A. Screened subnet
- B. Private VLAN
- C. Untrusted zone
- D. Trusted zone
Answer: A
Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that is isolated from both the internal and external networks by firewalls or routers. It is used to host publicly accessible servers that need some protection from external attacks, but also need to be separated from the internal network for security reasons.
Reference
1: Seven-Second Subnetting - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.4
2: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-008, 5th Edition, page 56
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 22
NEW QUESTION # 159
A Chief Information Officer is concerned about environmental issues in the data center at corporate headquarters. Which of the following are the most common sensors installed in a data center? (Select two).
- A. Electrical
- B. Flooding
- C. Air flow
- D. Carbon monoxide
- E. Humidity
- F. Temperature
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The most common sensors installed in a data center to monitor environmental issues include:
Temperature Sensors: These sensors monitor the ambient temperature within the data center. Maintaining an optimal temperature is crucial for the proper functioning of servers and other equipment.
Humidity Sensors: These sensors measure the humidity levels. High humidity can cause condensation, leading to equipment damage, while low humidity can cause static electricity buildup.
Reference:
1: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives (N10-008)
NEW QUESTION # 160
A business purchased redundant internet connectivity from two separate ISPs. Which of the following is the business MOST likely implementing?
- A. Multipathing
- B. Load balancing
- C. NIC teaming
- D. Hot site
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multipathing is a technique that allows a device to use more than one path to communicate with another device. This provides redundancy, load balancing, and fault tolerance for network connections. A business that purchased redundant internet connectivity from two separate ISPs is most likely implementing multipathing to ensure continuous access to the internet in case one ISP fails or becomes congested. Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 437; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 16-8.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?
- A. SFP
- B. LC
- C. BNC
- D. RJ45
Answer: A
Explanation:
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is a connector type that has the most flexibility. It is a hot-swappable transceiver that can support different speeds, distances, and media types depending on the module inserted. It can be used for both copper and fiber connections and supports various protocols such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, and SONET. Reference: https://www.fs.com/what-is-sfp-transceiver-aid-11.html
NEW QUESTION # 162
A network administrator determines that even when optimal wireless coverage is configured, the network users still report constant disconnections After troubleshooting, the administrator determines that moving from one location to another causes the disconnection Which of the following settings should provide better network stability?
- A. RF attenuation ratio
- B. EIRP power setting
- C. Client association timeout
- D. RSSl roaming threshold
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this case, the most likely cause of the constant disconnections when moving from one location to another is likely due to a problem with the roaming functionality of the wireless network. The setting that would likely provide better network stability in this situation is the RSSI roaming threshold, which determines the signal strength required for a client device to remain connected to the wireless network. If the roaming threshold is set too low, the client device may disconnect and reconnect to the network too frequently as it moves between different access points. On the other hand, if the threshold is set too high, the client device may not roam to a new access point when necessary, leading to a loss of connectivity. Adjusting the RSSI roaming threshold to an appropriate value may help to improve the stability of the wireless network in this situation.
NEW QUESTION # 163
A network engineer is designing a wireless network that has the following requirements:
* Network speed must be higher than 100Mbps
* Must use the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands
Which of the following 802.11 standards should the engineer select?
- A. 802. lla
- B. 802. 11g
- C. 802.11b
- D. 802.11 n
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
802.11n is a wireless standard that supports up to 600 Mbps data rate and operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. 802.11n uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology to increase the number of spatial streams and improve the wireless performance and range. 802.11n meets the requirements of the wireless network design.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.6: Explain the functions of network services.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? {Select two).
- A. Outlet amperage
- B. KVM size
- C. Switch depth
- D. Server height
- E. Cooling fan speed
- F. Hard drive size
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The size of a rack for installation depends on several factors, such as the available space, the power and cooling requirements, and the dimensions of the equipment to be installed. Two of the most important dimensions to consider are the switch depth and the server height. Switch depth refers to the length of the switch from front to back, which determines how much space is needed inside the rack. Server height refers to the vertical space occupied by the server, which is measured in rack units (RU) or U. One rack unit is equal to
1.75 inches. The height of the rack should be able to accommodate the total number of rack units needed for the servers and other devices, as well as some extra space for cable management and airflow. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 2, Section 2.5
NEW QUESTION # 165
A network administrator wants to know which systems on the network are at risk of a known vulnerability. Which of the following should the administrator reference?
- A. SLA
- B. Site survey report
- C. NDA
- D. CVE
- E. Patch management policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a publicly available database of known security vulnerabilities and exposures that affect various software and hardware products. A CVE entry provides a standardized identifier, a brief description, and references to related sources of information for each vulnerability or exposure. A network administrator can reference the CVE database to check if any of the systems on the network are affected by a known vulnerability, and if so, what are the potential impacts and mitigations.
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level and quality of service, such as availability, performance, and security. An SLA does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or services.
A Patch Management Policy is a set of rules and procedures that govern how patches are applied to systems and software to fix bugs, improve functionality, or address security issues. A patch management policy can help prevent or reduce the risk of vulnerabilities or exposures, but it does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or software.
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between two or more parties that prohibits the disclosure of confidential or proprietary information to unauthorized parties. An NDA does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the systems or information.
A Site Survey Report is a document that summarizes the results of a physical inspection and assessment of a network site, such as the layout, infrastructure, equipment, and environmental conditions. A site survey report can help identify and resolve potential network issues, such as interference, signal strength, or coverage, but it does not provide information on specific vulnerabilities or exposures affecting the network devices or software.
Reference
What is CVE?
What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning
NDA, MSA, SOW and SLA. Confidentiality agreements when you outsource QA Site Survey Report
NEW QUESTION # 166
A technician thinks one of the router ports is flapping. Which of the following available resources should the technician use in order to determine if the router is flapping?
- A. NetFlow
- B. Syslog
- C. Audit logs
- D. Traffic logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Syslog is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis1. Syslog can help a technician to determine if a router port is flapping by providing timestamps, severity levels, and descriptions of the events that occur on the router, such as interface up or down, link state change, or error messages. Syslog can also help to identify the cause and frequency of the port flapping and troubleshoot the issue.
Audit logs are records of actions or events that occur on a system or network, such as user login, file access, configuration change, or policy violation. Audit logs can help to monitor and verify the activities and behaviors of users, devices, or applications on a system or network. Audit logs can also help to detect and investigate security incidents, compliance issues, or performance problems. However, audit logs do not provide detailed information about router port flapping.
NetFlow is a protocol that collects and analyzes network traffic data for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes2. NetFlow can help to identify the sources, destinations, volumes, and types of traffic on a network.
NetFlow can also help to optimize network performance, security, and capacity planning. However, NetFlow does not provide detailed information about router port flapping.
Traffic logs are records of network traffic that pass through a device or application, such as a firewall, proxy, or web server. Traffic logs can help to monitor and filter the network traffic based on rules or policies. Traffic logs can also help to detect and prevent malicious traffic, such as malware, attacks, or unauthorized access.
However, traffic logs do not provide detailed information about router port flapping.
NEW QUESTION # 167
A network administrator installed a new data and VoIP network. Users are now experiencing poor call quality when making calls. Which of the following should the administrator do to increase VoIP performance?
- A. Configure a voice VLAN.
- B. Configure PoE on the network.
- C. Configure LACP on all VoIP phones.
- D. Configure jumbo frames on the network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Benefits of Voice VLAN
It ensures that your VoIP (Voice over Internet Phone) devices do not have to contend directly with all the broadcasts and other traffic from the data VLAN. A voice VLAN can simplify network configuration in some circumstances."
https://community.fs.com/blog/auto-voip-vs-voice-vlan-what-s-the-difference.html Jumbo Frames
"When jumbo frames on a VoIP/UC network are enabled, it can cause the same kind of delay to your network transmissions."
"VoIP uses will always not benefit from jumbo frame, as VoIP like gaming, is latency and time sensitive. Jumbo Frame for Internet Purpose: You will not see any performance boost as the files that came across the internet does not support jumbo frame."
https://www.ankmax.com/newsinfo/1358641.html#:~:text=VoIP%20uses%20will%20always%20not,does%20not%20support%20jumbo%20frame.
"To summarize this general best practice guide, you should NOT enable jumbo frame feature as a general home user."
NEW QUESTION # 168
A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company's website:<INPUT TYPE="IMAGE" SRC="javascript : alert ('test') ; "> Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?
- A. Code obfuscation
- B. Input sanitization
- C. Prepared statements
- D. Output encoding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Input sanitization is the process of validating and filtering the user input to prevent malicious code or commands from being executed on the web server or the web browser. Input sanitization can prevent this type of attack, which is called cross-site scripting (XSS), by removing or escaping any special characters or scripts that are not expected or allowed in the input field. Input sanitization can be implemented on the server-side or the client-side, or both, to enhance the security of the web application.
Reference
1: Web Application Attacks - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.2
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 317
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 15
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 6
NEW QUESTION # 169
Which of the following is a requirement when certifying a network cabling as Cat 7?
- A. Use F-type connectors on the network terminations.
- B. Ensure the patch panel is certified for the same category.
- C. Ensure the termination standard is TIA/EIA-568-A.
- D. Limit 10Gb transmissions to 180ft (55m).
Answer: C
Explanation:
Category 7 (Cat 7) is a cabling standard that supports 10GBASE-T Ethernet connections up to 100 meters (328 feet). In order for a cabling system to be certified as Cat 7, all components, including the patch panel, must meet the TIA/EIA-568-A standard. This standard requires the use of shielded cables with F-type connectors for the network terminations. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, 8th Edition, page 158.
NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following DNS records maps an alias to a true name?
- A. AAAA
- B. NS
- C. CNAME
- D. TXT
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps an alias name to a canonical or true domain name. For example, a CNAME record can map blog.example.com to example.com, which means that blog.example.com is an alias of example.com. A CNAME record is useful when you want to point multiple subdomains to the same IP address, or when you want to change the IP address of a domain without affecting the subdomains1.
NEW QUESTION # 171
A new student is given credentials to log on to the campus Wi-Fi. The student stores the password in a laptop and is able to connect; however, the student is not able to connect with a phone when only a short distance from the laptop. Given the following information:
Which of the following is MOST likely causing this connection failure?
- A. Channel overlap
- B. Antenna cable attenuation/signal loss
- C. Transmission speed
- D. Incorrect passphrase
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 172
Which of the following topologies is designed to fully support applications hosted in on-premises data centers, public or private clouds, and SaaS services?
- A. PAN
- B. MAN
- C. SDWAN
- D. MPLS
Answer: C
Explanation:
SDWAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a topology that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN links, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS12. SDWAN can optimize the performance, security, and reliability of applications hosted in different locations, such as on-premises data centers, public or private clouds, and SaaS services3 .
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) is a topology that connects multiple LANs within a geographic area, such as a city or a campus . MAN is not designed to support applications hosted in different clouds or SaaS services, as it is limited by the physical distance and bandwidth of the WAN links.
PAN (Personal Area Network) is a topology that connects devices within a short range, such as Bluetooth, infrared, or NFC . PAN is not designed to support applications hosted in different clouds or SaaS services, as it is limited by the wireless technology and the device capabilities.
MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a technology that uses labels to forward packets across a WAN, without relying on IP routing . MPLS can improve the performance and quality of service of applications hosted in different locations, but it is not a topology by itself, and it requires dedicated WAN links that are expensive and inflexible .
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, pages 32-33.
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Section 1.2: Network Topologies and Network Types, page 6.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 7: Cloud Computing and Virtualization, pages 352-353.
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Training Course], Video 7.1: Cloud Computing, [6].
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, page 30.
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Section 1.2: Network Topologies and Network Types, page 5.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, page 31.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, page 29.
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Section 1.2: Network Topologies and Network Types, page 5.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, page 30.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 1: Network Fundamentals, pages 33-34.
NEW QUESTION # 173
In a data center, data traffic that moves east-west is flowing between:
- A. the top-of-rack and core switches.
- B. the top-of-rack and distribution switches.
- C. top-of-rack switches.
- D. the server and the cloud.
Answer: C
Explanation:
East-west data traffic in a data center refers to the traffic that flows laterally within the data center, typically between servers within the same data center. This type of traffic usually flows between top-of-rack (ToR) switches, which connect multiple servers or devices in the same rack to each other or to other racks without necessarily routing through the core or distribution layers of the network architecture. This is opposed to north-south traffic, which typically flows in and out of the data center to the wider network or internet.
Therefore, the correct answer is "top-of-rack switches".
NEW QUESTION # 174
Which of the following protocols should be used when Layer 3 availability is of the highest concern?
- A. LACP
- B. LDAP
- C. DHCP
- D. FHRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
FHRP stands for First Hop Redundancy Protocol, which is a group of protocols that allow routers or switches to provide backup or failover for the default gateway in a network. FHRP ensures that the network traffic can reach its destination even if the primary gateway fails or becomes unavailable. Some examples of FHRP protocols are HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
References
* 1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 18
* 2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 9
* 3: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-008, 5th Edition, page 263
* 4: CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Practice Exam w/PBQ & Solution, question 5
* 5: What's on the CompTIA Network+ 008 certification? | CompTIA, section 3.1
NEW QUESTION # 175
Several WIFI users are reporting the inability to connect to the network. WLAN users on the guest network are able to access all network resources without any performance issues. The following table summarizes the findings after a site survey of the area in question:
Which of the following should a wireless technician do NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
- A. Reconfigure the channels to reduce overlap
- B. Replace the omni antennas with directional antennas
- C. Update the SSIDs on all the APs
- D. Decrease power in AP 3 and AP 4
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 176
A technician is troubleshooting a SQL database connection. After remotely connecting to the end client, the technician tests basic connectivity. Which of the following ports is available to connect via command-line interface?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct port available for connecting to a SQL database via command-line interface is D. 1521. Port 1521 is the default port for Oracle Database connections using the Oracle Net Services (SQL*Net) protocol.
Port 143: This is used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) communication.
Port 445: This is used for Microsoft's SMB (Server Message Block) protocol (file and printer sharing).
Port 993: This is used for secure IMAP (IMAPS) communication.
Port 1521: This is the default port for Oracle Database connections using the Oracle Net Services (SQL*Net) protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 177
A network administrator is reviewing the following metrics from a network management system regarding a switchport. The administrator suspects an issue because users are calling in regards to the switchport's performance:
Based on the information in the chart above, which of the following fs the cause of these performance issues?
- A. The connected device is exceeding the configured MTU.
- B. The connected device is receiving too many packets.
- C. The switchport has been up for too long
- D. The connected device is sending too many packets
- E. The switchport does not have enough CRCs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 178
A lab environment hosts Internet-facing web servers and other experimental machines, which technicians use for various tasks A technician installs software on one of the web servers to allow communication to the company's file server, but it is unable to connect to it Other machines in the building are able to retrieve files from the file server. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the web server cannot retrieve the files, and what should be done to resolve the problem?
- A. The lab environment is located in the DM2, and traffic to the LAN zone is denied by default. The technician can move the computer to another zone or request an exception from the administrator.
- B. The lab environment is currently set up with hubs instead of switches, and the requests are getting bounced back The technician can submit a request for upgraded equipment to management.
- C. The lab environment's IDS is blocking the network traffic 1 he technician can whitelist the new application in the IDS
- D. The lab environment has lost connectivity to the company router, and the switch needs to be rebooted.
The technician can get the key to the wiring closet and manually restart the switch
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 179
A network technician has multimode fiber optic cable available in an existing IDF. Which of the following Ethernet standards should the technician use to connect the network switch to the existing fiber?
- A. 1000BaseSX
- B. 1000BaseLX
- C. 10GBaseT
- D. 1000BaseT
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 180
A technician is installing a SOHO router. Which of the following should be performed on every installation and periodically maintained to prevent unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
- A. Use complex passwords
- B. Disable the SSID broadcast
- C. Disable port forwarding
- D. Disable remote management
- E. Update the router firmware
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION # 181
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CompTIA N10-008 certification exam is an entry-level certification that does not have any prerequisites. However, it is recommended that candidates have at least nine months of networking experience and a basic understanding of networking concepts before taking the exam. N10-008 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions and has a time limit of 90 minutes.
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